Is the bible really the Word of God?

If I'm not mistaken, copies of the Bible are translated directly from the original Greek copies. It's not Greek to German, then German to English, then English to Spanish ect; it's Greek to German, Greek to English, Greek to Spanish ect.

Yes, you're exactly correct but I'm not sure where you feel I erred.

Reck,

While the bibles today are translated directly from Greek and Hebrew, they are translated from the oldest available copies. For example; for the translations of the NT, it might be coming from 150 AD and not the original writings of Luke or Paul in the 50's AD, for OT 300 BC, and not necessarily the exact scroll that David or Isaiah would have written. I think you know this, but others might accuse you of spin (or straw man, circ. arg. or red herring, or blue pencil etc.)

I should clarify, translations of the NEW TESTAMENT are diectly from the earliest known Greek copies. Sharp, I guess that's why I saw copies of copies ect as an error. As far as the original writings of the NT, I believe they no longer exist. Regardn the OT, never really researched it. I will now.

I do like the fact that you pointed out the DSS are so accurate, considern the gap in time of the translations.

"And the words of the Lord are flawless, like silver refined in a furnace of clay, purified seven times." Psalms 12:6

Translation of DDS to MT is so accurate. Potentially gettn "blue penciled" is alot a pressure man.

We know that it's been translated and copied, do we know if it's been edited?

Yeah, sorry I didn't pay close attention to your reference to the bible being translated. The OT was of course originally written in Hebrew with a few verses in Aramaic, which is basically a similar language to Hebrew. And you're right, the NT was written in Greek.

Around the 3rd century BC there was a group of approx. 70 Jewish scholars whose job it became to translate the Hebrew bible (OT) into Greek. The Jews had been under Greek authority/influence for some time at that point and thus most spoke Greek, not Hebrew/Aramaic. These 70 men were known as the Septuagint and therefore the Greek version of the OT is known as the Septuagint version, or simply the Septuagint. Some OT footnotes will have LXX (Roman numeral for 70), which simply refers to a Septuagint translation for that word or phrase. And besides...you know better than to doubt me.

I'm not sure what you mean exactly by "edited." It has been edited to the degree that a translation makes sense when it's translated. For example, using my Greek-to-English Interlinear Bible, I see that the word-for-word translation of John 1:1 reads: In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and God was the Word. Proper English would translate that to: In THE beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Why you ask? Ready for this? Here's the footnote: "But note that the subject has the article and the predicate has it not; hence translate "the Word was God." Got it? Great.

edit (c/o Webster):
to alter, adapt, or refine especially to bring about conformity to a standard or to suit a particular purpose.

That's what I meant by "edit".

Sharp12,
After re-reading my post, I think I came off sounding snarky..that really wasn't my intention.

Dear Snarky, I mean Linda, no offense taken. To answer your edit question using the definition you gave: Translations such as the King James Version, New King James Version, NIV, and NASB have not been edited, merely translated. Some "bibles" however have been edited; i.e. The New World Translation (Jehovah's Witnesses bible) and Joseph Smith's alleged version of the KJV called The Inspired Version, although supposedly Mormons don't use that version today. Hope that answers your question. Out.

I have a response up over on Reck's Blog where this started, my friend.