So let me get this straight... The fact that Obama is black is basically used in res ipsa fashion to get us to believe he must have gotten where he is by affirmative action-- especially considering his thin qualifications.
HOWEVER, its clear to Republicans that Clarence Thomas got where he is with no affirmative action aiding him--his thin qualifications notwithstanding.
Someone please square these two views for me. Is it really as clear to Republicans as I phrased above? If so, why?