FletchforFreedom Wrote:
Dec 30, 2012 1:11 PM
Look, o economic ignoramus, the Laffer Curve does not define a specific percentage point and it varies among several taxes. Examples of the Laffer Curve in operation date at least back to the Roman Empire and to taxes by the crown from several countries to capital gains taxes in more recent times. Are you so completely divorced from reality that you actually believe the Laffer Curve defines a specific percentage point or that it needs to in order to be empirically proved? Your ignorance is showing!