Brian630 Wrote:
Dec 16, 2012 3:32 PM
If it's wrong to hold all Muslims responsible for violent acts committed by some Muslims, then why doesn't the same rule apply to gun owners? If it's wrong to single out all Muslims for govt & law enforcement scrutiny because some Muslims commit violent acts, then why doesn't the same rule apply to gun owners? If it's wrong to restrict the rights of all Muslims because some Muslims commit violent acts, then why doesn't the same rule apply to gun owners? If more guns = more death & destruction, then why hasn't America long ago become like Syria since U.S. govt figures say that Americans have 200-300 million guns & gun sales have been increasing for 20 years? Cassandra (of Troy)