Sanity102 Wrote:
Dec 15, 2012 7:37 PM
Actually no, the right to unionize came in 1935; and primarily it was to stop full fledge communism. And the women really becoming part of the work force and two wage earning families didn't happen until some 2 decades after the war. Prices do increase according to people's wages; but the same is when products are cheaper. I know of a family member who moved to Texas because food and shelter was so much less; unfortunately, she confided that so is the pay.