Perhaps others will correct me but regarding the issue of a state declaring Spanish to be its official language I know of nothing in the U.S.Constitution to prevent it. It would be another untoward stretch of the Interstate Commerce clause to use it although past violations of it leave no definable boundary to its exploitation. I know of several reasons why a state should not do that. All are a matter of simple pragmatism and have nothing to do with constitutionality or political leanings. There are such things you know. Just because something should be done does not mean the Federal government should do it.