Ace_1 Wrote:
Jul 02, 2012 11:19 PM
The article said: "The Nixon administration initially minimized both the Watergate break-in and the administration's involvement. When Nixon invoked executive privilege, the courts ruled that executive privilege couldn't be used to protect potentially fraudulent activities." What I want to know is: Why are the courts not making a ruling on OBAMA using executive privledge to protect potentially fraudulent / criminal activities??? In all the articles Ie read, in all the talk shows I've listened to, NOT ONE TIME has anyone brought up the possibility of taking Obama to court over his "executive privledge" of protecting Eric Holders potential criminal activity! After all, Nixon was taken to court .... why is Obama not taken to court ?