lbarnes Wrote:
Apr 16, 2012 2:20 PM
What does 1 Corinthians 15:29 mean? Apparently the early Christians were baptizing for the dead. This baptism for the dead is nothing to be concerned about. Baptizing a dead person only gives their spirit the right to accept the baptism. We know Mary could not touch the risen Lord because he hadn't yet ascended to Heaven. Three days later he was touchable in the upper closed room. 1 Peter 3:18-20, we learn he went to Spirit Prison and "preached to spirits in prison." In the 4th chapter, he did so, so that they "could be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit." If baptism is necessary for salvation, hence, 1 Cor. 15:29.