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Well you've got it all figured out apparently, and you don't give sources for any of your claims, and it's a lot of work looking up all of the Biblical passages I cite, and you don't seem to be willing to put much effort into this except to make assertions and speculations. That's easy, anybody can do that.
Tinsldr2 wrote: “Know that every mitzvah which G-d gave to Moses was given with its clarification. First He told him the mitzvah and then He expounded on its explanation and content, including all that which is included in the Torah. The manner of transmittal to Israel occurred as stated in the Talmud (Eruvin 54b) [How was the system of teaching? Moses first learned the law from the mouth of the Almighty.] Moses then went into the Tent, and Aaron went in with him. Moses then stated to him a single time the mitzvah he had received, and taught him its explanation, (following which) Aaron retreated to the right of Moses. Then, Elazar and Itamar, Aaron's sons, entered – and Moses told them what he had told Aaron, and then they stepped back. One sat to the left of Moses, and the other on the right of Aharon. Then the seventy Elders arrived, and Moses taught Aaron and his sons. Following this came the masses of people and every one seeking God, and he (Moses) placed before them the mitzvah, until all had heard it from his mouth.” You can’t possibly expect anyone to simply take your word, you’re going to need to provide Scripture references for all of that. And if you can’t, then wherever the information comes from, it is from a man or men, and subject to the errors and outright fabrications of men. And we have been speaking about the New Testament, why did you switch to the OT? The OT has its own evidences and sources of authentication.
Tinsldr2 wrote: “The Bible was not written all at the same time.” I never claimed it was written all at the same time. The books of the OT and the NT were written down by 40+ men (the writer of Hebrews is not known for certain) of different backgrounds, languages and nationalities across a span of approximately 1,600 years.
Tinsldr2 wrote: “Oh God inspires people all the time. God is not "dead" ” I did not ever claim that God was dead, you must be thinking of Nietzsche. I said that if you are going to claim any individual act of inspiration, certainly if it involves anything having to do with doctrine, then the obligation is on you to prove it, that’s all. “Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.” (1 John 4:1)
Tinsldr2 wrote: “When was the King James Bible Written? When do you claim the "Bible" was written?” The original or “authorized” King James Bible was first published in 1611. We are not beholden to English translations, not from 1611 or the present, though they are hugely helpful. With regard to the New Testament we can go directly to the underlying Greek when necessary, and due to God’s providence, the original text was mostly written in Koine Greek (and some Aramaic). Koine Greek is a dead language, so its meanings do not change with time. Pretty helpful, God’s providence. All 27 books comprising the New Testament were written before the end of the 1st century, and all of them are referenced and quoted from in writings of 1st and 2nd century Christians.
Tinsldr2 wrote: "But if you can claim he inspired the Bible writers then you can not deny the possibility that he inspired others and continues to inspire them today." But that's just it, if anyone would make any such claim of being inspired today, they would need to prove it, not just assert it: “Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.” (1 John 4:1)
usmcpgw wrote: "I was not speaking of feelings. I was speaking of the SOUL. to find God in one's heart is to accept God into one's soul. I am not saying do what feels good. I am saying that to open your soul/heart to God" Understood!
Tinsldr2 wrote: "First that is YOUR interpretation." No, it's not, that is just your assertion, I didn't even reference any Scripture to interpret, I only outlined a simple and effective means to understand any passage, a logical means which ought to work in any book, not just the Bible. ~~~~~~~~~~ Tinsldr2 wrote: "Second, you have differences in translations that while slight can have hugely different meanings." Do you have a list of examples where this is true, examples that we can examine to determine the truthfulness thereof, or is this just another assertion? ~~~~~~~~~~ Tinsldr2 wrote: “Third, no matter how many references you give, they WILL mean slightly different things to different people. So again it all comes down to YOUR interpretation of what things mean." Wow, you seem desperate not to be pinned down by anything God’s Word says, and the only reason there can be for such an approach to God’s Word is that there is something which you don’t like about it. What’s your motivation for insisting that men of good faith cannot reach an agreement on the overwhelming majority of Scripture? I realize it’s a common assertion, used as a “dodge” more often than the misapplication of admonition against “judgment” in Matthew chapter 7, but what’s really driving your need to dogmatically assert that there can never be any agreement on what Scripture plainly says?
Tinsldr2 wrote: “And how do you KNOW God did Not inspire the Clergy of the Church?” More to the point, how do you claim to know that He did? If it’s not in Scripture, then you can only know it by and from men. If anything is asserted by men in matters of religion, the obligation is on that man to back up his assertion, it is not my obligation to prove a negative. Do you know when the “priestly class” clergy was first instituted? Did they claim it was inspired by God at the time? If you don’t know the answers to these basic questions, then on what ground to you take a stand in support of any such extra-Biblical doctrine?
Tinsldr2 wrote: “If he inspired the writers of the Bible Centuries after the stories it tells why could he not have inspired the Church leaders?” Which New Testament books of the Bible do you assert were written centuries after the events took place, and what evidence do you have that God has inspired any Scripture since the 1st century?
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