In response to:

Why the West Became Rich While Asia languished

Pistol Wrote: Sep 11, 2012 12:45 AM
that.
Texas Chris Wrote: Sep 11, 2012 8:54 AM
Monopolies cannot exist without government force. In fact, the one true monopoly is the government's self-ascribed use of initial force.

Without that, liberty thrives, and prosperity follows.
Chris from Kalifornia Wrote: Sep 11, 2012 7:39 AM
That is EXACTLY why we have the tenth amendment and the federal government is supposed to stay within it's constitutional confines.

During the dark ages, nations like China were relatively advanced while Europeans were living in squalid huts.

But that began to change several hundred years ago. Europe experienced the enlightenment and industrial revolution while the empires of Asia languished.

What accounts for this dramatic shift?

I’m not going to pretend there’s a single explanation, but part of the answer is that Europe benefited from decentralization and jurisdictional competition. More specifically, governments were forced to adopt better policies because labor and capital had significant ability to cross borders in search of less oppression.

I’m certainly a big fan of making governments...